CCNA 4 - Final Exam C

1. Identify the factors that contribute to congestion on an Ethernet LAN. (Choose three.)

** improper placement of enterprise level servers
** addition of hosts to a physical segment
replacement of hubs with workgroup switches
** increasing use of bandwidth intensive network applications
migration to full-duplex Ethernet within the LAN

2. Which of the following are examples of TCP/IP application layer protocols? (Choose three.)

** a terminal emulation protocol that supports remote console connections with various network devices
a protocol created by IBM that makes it easier for mainframes to connect to remote offices
** a protocol responsible for transporting electronic mail on TCP/IP networks and the Internet
a protocol that controls the rate at which data is sent to another computer
** a protocol that exchanges network management information between a network device and a management console

3. Which of the following eliminates switching loops?

hold-down timers
poison reverse
** spanning tree protocol
time to live
split horizon protocol

4. The show cdp neighbors command is a very useful network troubleshooting tool. Using the output in the graphic, select the statements that are true. (Choose two.)

CDP operates at the network layer of the OSI model.
** The output of this command displays information about directly connected Cisco devices only.
The switch is attached to the SanJose1 FastEthernet0/21 interface.
SanJose1 is running CDP version 12.0.
SanJose1 has two fully operational, cdp-enabled Cisco switches directly connected to it.
** SanJose2 is a 2600 series router running several routed protocols

5. A network administrator can ping the Denver router, but gets a ‘Password Required but None Set’ message when trying to connect remotely via Telnet. Which command sequence must be applied to the Denver router to allow remote access?

Router(config)# line console 0
Router(config-line)# login
Router(config-line)# password cisco
** Router(config)# line vty 0 4
** Router(config-line)# login
** Router(config-line)# password cisco
Router(config)# line virtual terminal
Router(config-line)# enable login
Router(config-line)# password cisco
Router(config)# line vty 0 4
Router(config-line)# enable secret
Router(config-line)# password cisco
Router(config)# enable secret cisco
Router(config)# enable cisco

6. Which of the following is associated with link-state routing protocols?

low processor overhead
poison reverse
routing loops
split horizon
** shortest-path first calculations

7. A router does not load its configuration after a power failure. After running the show startup-configuration command, the adminstrator finds that the original configuration is intact. What is the cause of this problem?

The configuration register is set for 0×2100.
The configuration register is set for 0×2101.
The configuration register is set for 0×2102.
** The configuration register is set for 0×2142.
Boot system commands are not configured.
Flash memory is empty causing the router to bypass the configuration in NVRAM

8. Which commands are used to verify the content and placement of access control lists? (Choose three.)

** show ip interface
show ip route
show processes
** show running-config
show cdp neighbor
** show access-lists

9. Which of the following are required when creating a standard access control list? (Choose two.)

destination address and wildcard mask
** source address and wildcard mask
subnet mask and wildcard mask
access list number between 100 and 199 or 2000 and 2699
** access list number between 1 and 99 or 1300 to 1999

10. Which of the following are keywords that can be used in an access control list to replace a dotted decimal wildcard mask? (Choose two.)

most
** host
all
** any
some
sum

11. Refer to the diagram. All ports on Switch A are in the Sales VLAN and all ports on Switch B are in the Accounting VLAN. How many broadcast domains and how many collision domains are shown? (Choose two).

3 collision domains
** 3 broadcast domains
5 broadcast domains
** 9 collision domains
10 collision domains
13 collision domains

12. Refer to the graphic. Using the most efficient IP addressing scheme and VLSM, which address can be configured on one of the serial interfaces?

192.168.16.63/27
192.168.16.158/27
192.168.16.192/27
192.168.16.113/30
192.168.16.145/30
** 192.168.16.193/30

13. What is the purpose of the Spanning Tree Protocol (STP)?

** prevents Layer 2 loops
prevents routing loops on a router
creates smaller collision domains
creates smaller broadcast domains
allows Cisco devices to exchange routing table updates

14. What is the purpose of a loopback address when using the OSPF routing protocol?

activates the OSPF neighboring process
** ensures a persistent router ID for the OSPF process
provides a backdoor for connectivity during the convergence process
streamlines and speeds up the convergence process

15. Which statement is true regarding states of the IEEE 802.1d Spanning Tree Protocol?

Ports are manually configured to be in the forwarding state.
** Ports listen and learn before going into the forwarding state.
Ports must be blocked before they can be placed in the disabled state.
It takes 15 seconds for a port to go from blocking to forwarding

16. Which sequence of commands is used to configure a loopback address on a router?

Router1(config)# interface loopback 1
Router1(config-if)# ip address 192.168.1.1
Router1(config)# interface serial 0/0
Router1(config-if)# loopback 1
Router1(config-if)# ip address 192.168.1.1
Router1(config)# interface serial 0/0
Router1(config-if)# loopback 1
Router1(config-if)# ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.0
** Router1(config)# interface loopback 1
** Router1(config-if)# ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.255

17. Which routing protocols are classful and do not support VLSM? (Choose two.)

EIGRP
OSPF
** RIP v1
RIP v2
** IGRP

18. Refer to the graphic. Two switches are connected together through a trunk port. SW2 displays the message shown. Which of the following will solve the duplex mismatch?

SW1(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1
SW1(config-if)# duplex full
SW1(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1
SW1(config-if)# full-duplex
** SW2(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1
** SW2(config-if)# duplex full
SW2(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1
SW2(config-if)# full-duplex

19. Refer to the graphic. Two routers have been configured to use EIGRP. Packets are not being forwarded between the two routers. What could be the problem?

EIGRP does not support VLSM.
The routers were not configured to monitor neighbor adjacency changes.
The default bandwidth was used on the routers.
** An incorrect IP address was configured on a router interface.

20. According to the the provided router output, which of the following statements is true regarding PPP operation?

Only the link-establishment phase completed successfully.
Only the network-layer phase completed successfully.
Neither the link-establishment phase nor the the network-layer phase completed successfully.
** Both the link-establishment and network-layer phase completed successfully

21. Frame Relay is configured over a point-to-point connection between two routers. The output of the show frame-relay pvc command indicates that the status of this PVC is inactive. Which of the following devices could be the source of the problem? (Choose two.)

local router
local Frame Relay switch
** remote router
** remote Frame Relay switch

R3 has the following configuration:
R3# show running-config
–some output text omitted–
interface serial0/0
bandwidth 128
ip address 192.168.11.2 255.255.255.0
encapsulation frame-relay
frame-relay map ip 192.168.11.2 30 broadcast

22. After the command R3# debug frame-relay packet is executed, a ping is issued from R3 to R1 but is unsuccessful. Based on the output of the debug command shown in the graphic and the router configuration, what might be problem?

** No clock rate assigned.
There is an incorrect DLCI number in the map statement.
An incorrect IP address exists in the map statement.
The encapsulation command is missing the broadcast keyword

23. Which statements are true regarding the Frame Relay LMI? (Choose three.)

** The LMI provides a virtual circuit (VC) status mechanism.
The LMI type must always be manually configured.
The available LMI types are NI1, DMS100 and 5ESS.
The LMI types supported by Cisco routers are CISCO and IETF.
** The LMI type configured on the router must match the one used on the Frame Relay switch.
** The LMI uses reserved DLCIs to exchange messages between the DTE and DCE

24. Which statement describes the process that occurs in Network Address Translation (NAT) overloading?

** Multiple private IP addresses are mapped to one public IP address.
The number of usable addresses assigned to a company is divided into smaller manageable groups.
A pool of IP addresses are mapped to one or more MAC addresses.
The router acts as a DHCP server and assigns multiple public IP addresses for each private IP address configured

25. Which two statements are true about the committed information rate on a Frame Relay link? (Choose two.)

The sum of the CIRs for all PVCs must be less than the port speed.
The sum of the CIRs for all PVCs must equal the port speed.
** The sum of the CIRs for all PVCs can be greater than the port speed.
** The DE bit will be set on frames that are transmitted in excess of the CIR.
Frames that are transmitted at greater than the CIR will be discarded at the source.
It is impossible to transmit frames at a rate in excess of the CIR

26. Which of the following commands would be used to troubleshoot the processing of call control functions such as call setup, signaling, and termination?

show interface bri0/0
show isdn active
debug isdn q921
** debug isdn q931
debug ppp negotiation
debug ppp authentication

27. Which of the following statements are true regarding PPP? (Choose three.)

** PPP can use synchronous and asynchronous physical media.
PPP can only be used between two Cisco devices.
PPP carries packets from several network layer protocols in LCPs.
** PPP uses LCPs to establish, configure, and test the data link connection.
** PPP uses LCPs to agree on format options such as authentication, compression, and error detection

28. A network administrator is evaluating authentication protocols for a PPP link. Which of the following reasons might lead to the selection of CHAP over PAP as the authentication protocol? (Choose three.)

establishes identities with a two-way handshake
** uses a three-way authentication periodically during the session to reconfirm identities
control by the remote host of the frequency and timing of login events
** transmits login information in encrypted format
** uses an unpredictable variable challenge value to prevent playback attacks
makes authorized network administrator intervention a requirement to establish each session

29. Why are static routes often used with ISDN DDR?

They are more stable than dynamic routing protocols.
They are more accurate than dynamic routing protocols because they are put in by a network administrator.
They are easier to modify when a faster technology is installed.
** They prevent the unnecessary activation of the link

30. Assuming that four bits have been borrowed to make subnets, identify the subnet network addresses. (Choose three.)
192.168.14.8
** 192.168.14.16
192.168.14.24
** 192.168.14.32
192.168.14.148
** 192.168.14.208

31. A switch can be configured for three different forwarding modes based on how much of a frame is received before the forwarding process begins. Each of the numbered arrows in the accompanying graphic signifies the point in a frame where a particular forwarding mode will begin. Which one of the following groups reflects the sequence of forwarding modes signified by the numbered arrows?

** 1) fast forward
** 2) fragment free
** 3) store-and-forward

1) store-and-forward
2) fragment free
3) fast forward

1) fragment free
2) fast forward
3) store-and-forward

1) fast forward
2) store-and-forward
3) fragment free

32. Which of the following commands will display a communication message on a router before the router prompt is shown?

** banner motd * Property of TLC. UNAUTHORIZED USERS WILL BE PROSECUTED TO THE FULL EXTENT OF THE LAW. *
message Property of TLC. UNAUTHORIZED USERS WILL BE PROSECUTED TO THE FULL EXTENT OF THE LAW.
banner * Property of TLC. UNAUTHORIZED USERS WILL BE PROSECUTED TO THE FULL EXTENT OF THE LAW. *
hostname (Property of TLC. UNAUTHORIZED USERS WILL BE PROSECUTED TO THE FULL EXTENT OF THE LAW.)

33. A router needs to be added to OSPF area 0. Which commands should be used to enable OSPF on the router? (Choose two.)

RouterA(config)# router ospf
** RouterA(config)# router ospf 1
RouterA(config-router)# network 192.168.2.0 0.0.0.255 0
** RouterA(config-router)# network 192.168.2.0 0.0.0.255 area 0
RouterA(config-router)# network 192.168.2.0 255.255.255.0 0

34. Refer to the graphic. Which of the following commands will configure router A for OSPF?

router ospf 1
network 192.168.10.0
** router ospf 1
** network 192.168.10.64 0.0.0.63 area 0
** network 192.168.10.192 0.0.0.3 area 0
router ospf 1
network 192.168.10.64 255.255.255.192
network 192.168.10.192 255.255.255.252
router ospf 1
network 192.168.10.0 area 0

35. Which of the following protocols would exchange information between routers to share network addresses and their metrics?

TCP
** RIP
CSMA/CD
Ethernet

36. Which ISDN device can be directly connected to a two-wire local loop in a North American city?

a router with a serial interface
a router with an S/T interface
** a router with a U interface
an ISDN terminal adapter

37. The output of the show ip interfaces brief command indicates that Serial0 is up but the line protocol is down. Which of the following are possible causes for the line protocol being in the down state? (Choose two.)

The clock rate is not set on the DTE.
An incorrect default gateway is set on the router.
A network is missing from the routing protocol configuration.
** The encapsulation on the Serial0 interface is incorrect.
** Keepalives are not being sent by the remote device

38. Which of the following is a characteristics of TCP? (Choose two.)

** data transport reliability
best path determination
** establishing, maintaining, and terminating virtual circuits
encapsulation of packets in a data frame with source and destination MAC addresses
best-effort datagram delivery

39. Which statement is true regarding the command ip route 192.168.7.24 255.255.255.248 192.168.7.9? (Choose two.)

** A packet destined for host 192.168.7.30 will be forwarded to address 192.168.7.9.
192.168.7.9 is the destination network for this route.
192.168.7.24 is the next-hop router in this command.
This command is issued from the interface configuration mode.
** This command is used to define a static route

40. Which of the following application layer protocols use TCP? (Choose three.)
** SMTP
** FTP
SNMP
** HTTP
TFTP
DHCP

41. Which terms refer to Frame Relay congestion management mechanisms? (Choose three.)

** BECN
DLCI
** DE
** FECN
LMI
Inverse ARP

42. Which of the following router commands will verify that a path exists to a destination network?

Router# show ip interfaces brief
** Router# show ip route
Router# show cdp neighbors
Router# show running-config
Router# show protocols

43. When EIGRP is configured on a router, which table of DUAL information is used to calculate the best route to each destination router?

router table
** topology table
DUAL table
CAM table
ARP table

44. Refer to the graphic. Routers A and B have EIGRP configured and automatic summarization has been disabled on both routers. Which of the following commands is used on router A to summarize the attached routes, and to which interface is this command applied? (Choose two)

** ip summary-address eigrp 1 192.168.10.64 255.255.255.192
ip area-range eigrp 1 192.168.10.80 255.255.255.224
summary-address 192.168.10.80 0.0.0.31
ip summary-address eigrp 1 192.168.10.64 0.0.0.63
** serial interface on router A
serial interface on router B

45. A router with two LAN interfaces, two WAN interfaces, and two loopback interfaces configured is operating with OSPF as its routing protocol. What is used by the OSPF process to assign the router ID?

the IP address of the interface configured with priority 0
the OSPF area ID configured on the interface with the highest IP address
** the loopback with the highest IP address configured
the highest IP address on the LAN interfaces
the highest IP address configured on the WAN interfaces

46. Given the IP address and subnet mask of 172.16.134.56 255.255.255.224, on which subnetwork does this address reside?

172.0.0.0
172.16.134.0
** 172.16.134.32
172.16.134.48
172.16.134.47
172.16.134.63

47. Which commands show when the last IGRP routing update was received? (Choose two.)

** Router# show ip protocols
Router# show version
Router# show interfaces
Router# show ip updates
** Router# show ip route

48. When using access control lists to filter traffic, which of the following is used to track multiple sessions occurring between hosts?

IP addresses
subnet masks
** port numbers
routed protocols
routing protocols
interfaces

49. Given the IP address and subnet mask of 172.16.134.64 255.255.255.224, which of the following would describe this address?

This is a useable host address.
This is a broadcast address.
** This is a network address.
This is not a valid address

50. The company network shown in the drawing has to be subnetted. The company has leased the Class C IP address of 200.1.2.0. Which of the following network addresses and masks would be appropriate for one of the subnetworks?

200.1.2.96 255.255.255.192
** 200.1.2.160 255.255.255.224
200.1.2.80 255.255.255.224
200.1.2.32 255.255.255.240

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CCNA 4 - Final Exam B

1. A network administrator is asked to design a system to allow simultaneous access to the Internet for 250 users. The ISP for this network can only supply five public IPs. What can be used to accomplish this task?

routable translation
dynamic translation
static translation
** port address translation
2. The LAN attached to the Ethernet interface of the Raleigh router shown in the graphic is addressed with private IP addresses. If one public IP is assigned to the company, which commands could be used in a configuration that allows all devices with private IPs in this network to access the Internet? (Choose two.)

** ip nat inside source list 1 interface serial0 overload
ip nat outside source list 1 interface serial0 overload
ip nat inside serial0
** ip nat inside source list 1 pool Raleigh overload
ip nat inside Raleigh overload
ip inside nat source list 1 interface serial0 Raleigh
3. The command output shown in the graphic was taken from a Cisco 806 broadband router. Which kind of address translation is in effect on this router?

static
dynamic
** overload
private
public
4. Which of the following IP addresses are defined by RFC 1918 as private addresses? (Choose three.)

** 192.168.146.0/22
172.10.25.0/16
** 172.31.0.0/16
20.0.0.0/8
** 10.172.92.8/29

5. How will data be transmitted from the router to the ISP if the router has the two links shown in the graphic?

Both links will transmit data at the same rate.
1544 bits can be transmitted simultaneously from the router over the T1 line.
** Both links will transmit bits one by one.
The 56K link will transmit a maximum of 53 bits at the same time.

6. Which statements about DHCP are true? (Choose three.)
DHCP uses TCP.
DHCP uses UDP.
** DHCP sends messages to the server on port 67.
DHCP sends messages to the server on port 68.
** DHCP sends messages to the client on port 67.
** DHCP sends messages to the client on port 68.

7. Which command would be used to exclude the IP address 192.168.24.5 from the DHCP address pool on a router?

Router(dhcp-config)# ip dhcp excluded-address 192.168.24.5
Router# ip dhcp excluded-address 192.168.24.5
Router(config-excluded)# ip dhcp excluded-address 192.168.24.5
** Router(config)# ip dhcp excluded-address 192.168.24.5
Router(config)# excluded-address 192.168.24.5
Router(dhcp-config)# excluded-address 192.168.24.5

8. The WAN connection for a nationwide company with 250 offices must support constant connections to core layer services for file sharing, and occasional Internet access. Which combination of WAN technologies will meet these needs with minimum expense?

Frame Relay PVC for Internet access and ATM for file server access
Frame Relay PVC for Internet access and ISDN for file server access
ISDN for Internet access and X.25 for file server access
** ISDN for Internet access and Frame Relay PVC for file server access

9. Which command would produce the output shown in the graphic?
show ip dhcp server statistics
show ip dhcp binding
** debug ip dhcp server events
debug ip dhcp binding

10. Which of the following devices is used to establish the communications link between the customer equipment and the local loop for digital lines?

terminal adapter
modem
** CSU/DSU
PBX switch
ISDN switch
Frame Relay Switch

11. Which of the following statements are true about Frame Relay? (Choose three.)

Frame Relay operation is defined by a series of ISO standards.
** Frame Relay is a packet switched, connection-oriented, wide area network service.
Frame Relay only supports point-to-point connections.
** A router can be considered as data terminal equipment (DTE) in a frame relay system.
Frame Relay is a cell switched, connection-oriented, wide area network service.
** Frame Relay networks use a subset of the HDLC protocol to carry information.

12. ITU-T Q.921 specifies the use of which protocol for sending control and signaling messages between the router and the ISDN switch?

HDLC
IPCP
LAPB
** LAPD
NCP
SS7

13. A company needs a WAN connection that is capable of transferring voice, video, and data at a minimum data rate of 155 Mbps. Which WAN connection is the best choice?

X.25
DSL
** ATM
ISDN BRI
ISDN PRI

14. Which statement explains why basic DSL is an unpopular WAN connectivity choice for enterprise computer departments that support home users?

DSL offers insufficient bandwidth to home users.
DSL requires the installation of new cables, which is not always possible for home users.
DSL dialup connection time is too slow for business use.
** DSL has limited geographical availability.

15. When planning simple WAN connections for a small company, which feature of the three layer hierarchical model makes it a good choice for the WAN topology.

It provides for redundancy.
** It allows for easy WAN expansion in case of company growth.
It is less expensive.
It provides faster connection time.
It provides less latency and jitter.

16. Which of the following terms describes a device that will put data on the local loop?

DLCI
CO
** DCE
DTE
PRI
BRI

17. Which of the following are supported by a BRI interface on a router? (Choose two.)

** Two independent channels that can carry analog data with a bandwidth of 64 KHz.
A single 128 Kbps digital bearer channel.
Two multiplexed channels carrying digital data.
A single 64 Kbps signaling channel.
A multiplexed data channel that can only handle SS7 information.
** A 16 Kbps delta channel used for signaling purposes.

18. A network administrator has been asked to provide the network in the United States with an ISDN WAN link. The router available to provide the WAN connection is a non-modular Cisco router with two serial connections. What must be done to adapt one of the serial interfaces of this router for the ISDN connection?

Nothing. The router is already suitable.
Purchase a BRI WAN interface card to install in the router.
Purchase a U interface to install in the router.
** Purchase a TA/NT1 device to install on the router.

19 Which of the following is a function of a DCE device?

determines the next-hop address for a packet
** multiplexes signals from several sources
adapts information for use on a service provider’s network
used to directly connect two DTEs to simulate a WAN network

20. Why would data frames be discarded in a Frame Relay network? (Choose two.)

The frame contains an incorrect IP address.
** An error has been detected in computing the frame check sequence.
There is not enough bandwidth dedicated for the data contained in the frame.
Data is transmitted at a rate greater than the access speed.
** The frame contains an incorrect DLCI.

21. Which of the following are commonly used as Data Communications Equipment? (Choose two.)

** modem
router
** CSU/DSU
ISDN Switch
Frame Relay Switch

22. Which of the following LCP options can be configured for PPP? (Choose three.)

** CHAP
** Stacker
IPCP
CDPCP
** Multilink

23. Which command will provide for CHAP authentication if the hostname on a challenging router is tampa with a password of florida?

** username tampa password florida
username tampa florida
hostname tampa password florida
hostname tampa florida

24. Which of the following describes the PAP protocol? (Choose two.)

** sends unencrypted authentication passwords
performs a three-way handshake
** allows repeated login attempts
uses the remote router hostname to verify identity
sends a random challenge throughout the session

25. Why was NAT created? (Choose two.)

to create firewalls on routers
** to conserve IP addresses
to translate domain names into IP addresses
to map network addresses to the corresponding data link address
** to hide internal addresses from external devices

26. An ISDN router is configured for DDR as shown in the graphic to provide Internet connectivity for the company. Immediately after a user in the company attempts opens a web browser to connect to the Internet, another user in the company tries to download a file using FTP. What will happen? (Choose two.)

** The user that opened the browser will connect to the Internet because the DDR link will consider this traffic interesting.
The Internet user will be disconnected because the FTP data will cause the DDR link to shut down.
The DDR link will allow the FTP traffic because it is interesting.
The DDR link will not allow the FTP traffic because it is not interesting.
The FTP connection will fail because the DDR link is already in use for the Internet connection.
** The FTP connection will succeed because the web user already opened the DDR link.

27. Which command configures the SPID on the first B channel of an ISDN interface?

Router(config)# isdn spid0 spid-number [ldn]
Router(config)# isdn spid1 spid-number [ldn]
Router(config-if)# isdn spid0 spid-number [ldn]
** Router(config-if)# isdn spid1 spid-number [ldn]

28. What does the command debug isdn q921 display?

exchange of call setup and teardown messages
PAP and CHAP authentication traffic
** Layer 2 messages on the D channel
protocol errors and statistics
Layer 2 messages on the B channel

29. When PPP authentication is enabled, which of the following may be checked before establishing a PPP link between two devices? (Choose two.)

the enable password on the remote device
the ip host configuration on the remote device
** the security server database for the username and password of the remote device
the hostname and enable password on the local device
** the local database for the username and password of the remote device

30. How many separate B channel circuits can be provisioned on a PRI interface that uses a T1 line for connectivity?

2
16
** 23
24
30
128

31. Which operating systems support multiuser capability? (Choose three.)

** Linux
Windows 98
Windows ME
** Windows XP
** Windows 2000

32. What is placed in the address field of a frame that will travel from the DC office of ABC company to the Orlando office?

MAC address of the Orlando router
MAC address of the DC router
192.168.1.25
192.168.1.26
DLCI 100
** DLCI 200

33. What does a DLCI of 0 indicate about a frame? (Choose two.)

This is the first data frame sent by the router.
** This is a management frame.
The encapsulation type is Cisco.
The encapsulation type is IETF.
** The LMI type is Ansi or q933a.
The LMI type is Cisco.

34. Which of the following protocols can be used to encapsulate data traffic sent from a router BRI interface? (Choose two.)

Link Access Protocol - Data
** High-Level Data Link Control
Logical Link Control
Serial Data Link Control
** Point to Point protocol
Binary Synchronous Control protocol

35. An administrator consoled into the Jelly router needs to telnet to the Butter router. What DLCI will the Jelly router place in the frame to perform this operation?

110
115
220
** 225

36. Which commands can be used to identify which DLCIs are active? (Choose two.)

** show frame-relay map
show frame-relay lmi
** show frame-relay pvc
show frame-relay interface
show interfaces
show ip route

37. A technician is testing the functionality of a recently installed router. The technician is unable to ping the serial interface of a remote router. The technician executes the show interface serial0/0 command on the local router and sees the following line in the output:
Serial0/0 is up, line protocol is down
What are possible causes for this command output? (Choose three.)

** remote CSU/DSU failure
serial cable missing
interface shutdown
** keepalives not being sent
** clocking signal missing

38. A router needs to forward a message received from a host. How does the router identify the correct VC to forward the message? (Choose two.)

The router forwards the frame to all ports in the network and learns the address from the reply frame.
The destination host IP address is embedded in the DLCI.
** The router searches Inverse ARP tables for maps of DLCIs to IP addresses.
** A table of static mappings can be searched.
The router broadcasts a request for the required IP address.

39. Which of the following statements regarding point-to-point subinterfaces are true? (Choose two.)

A point-to-point subinterface on one router must be connected to a similar subinterface on a remote router.
** Each point-to-point subinterface connection is configured with its own subnet.
The DLCIs configured on the remote and local routers must be the same for the PVC.
LMI frames are not transmitted through a subinterface.
** Routing updates in point-to-point networks are not subject to the split-horizon rule.

40. Which of the following can be concluded from the router output displayed in the graphic? (Choose two.)

** The local DLCI number of this PVC is 100.
The interface has been configured for subinterfaces and this map is for subinterface 0.
** Inverse ARP has determined the remote ip address as 10.140.1.1.
The LMI type is ANSI (0×64).
There is currently no congestion on the link.

41. Which of the following are functions of the Local Management Interface used in Frame Relay networks? (Choose three.)

** exchange information about the status of virtual circuits
map DLCIs to network addresses
** provide flow control
provide error notification
provide congestion notification
** send keepalive packets to verify operation of the PVC

42. Which of the following describe functions of the Point-to-Point protocol with regards to the OSI model? (Choose three.)

PPP uses Layer 3 of the OSI model to establish and maintain a session between devices.
PPP operates at all layers of the OSI model.
** PPP uses the data link layer to configure such options as error detection and compression.
** PPP provides a mechanism to multiplex several network layer protocols.
PPP uses Network Control Protocols (NCP) to test and maintain connectivity between devices.
** PPP can be configured on both synchronous and asynchronous serial interfaces.

43. Which of the following describes the CHAP protocol? (Choose three.)
** exchanges a random challenge number during the session to verfiy identity
sends authentication password to verify identity
** prevents transmission of login information in plain text
** disconnects the PPP session if authentication fails
initiates a two-way handshake

44. Which of the following switching types will allow the communication devices in the provider’s network to be shared and only allocated to an individual subscriber during data transfer?
circuit-switched
** packet-switched
frame-switched
dedicated-switched lines
lease-switched

45. How does Frame Relay technology process frames that contain errors? (Choose two.)
** Frame Relay services depend on the upper layer protocols to handle error recovery.
It requires the receiving device to request that the sender retransmit erroneous frames.
FECN, BECN, and DE bits are set in the frames to minimize errors.
** The receiving device drops any frames that contain errors without notifying the sender.
The frame relay switch notifies the sender that errors were detected.

46. Which of the following describes the WAN devices and cabling shown in the graphic? (Choose two.)
A null-modem cable is used between RouterD and DeviceC for connectivity.
A DB-25 or DB-9 serial cable is connected to interface S0/0 of RouterA.
** DeviceB and DeviceC are DCE devices.
** The same encoding scheme must be used by DeviceB and DeviceC.
A synchronous serial connection exists between DeviceB and DeviceC.

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CCNA 4 - Final Exam A

1. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is trying to configure a router to use SDM. After this configuration shown in the exhibit is applied, the SDM interface of the router is still not accessible. What is the cause of the problem?
**The username and password are not configured correctly.
The authentication method is not configured correctly.
The HTTP timeout policy is not configured correctly.
The vtys are not configured correctly.


2. Refer to the exhibit. Branch A has a non-Cisco router that is using IETF encapsulation and Branch B has a Cisco router. After the commands that are shown are entered, R1 and R2 fail to establish the PVC. The R2 LMI is Cisco, and the R1 LMI is ANSI. The LMI is successfully established at both locations. Why is the PVC failing?

The PVC to R1 must be point-to-point.
LMI types must match on each end of a PVC.
The frame relay PVCs cannot be established between Cisco and non-Cisco routers.
**The IETF parameter is missing from the frame-relay map ip 10.10.10.1 201 command.

3. Refer to the exhibit. An ACL called Managers already exists on this router. What happens if the network administrator issues the commands as shown in the exhibit?

The new ACL overwrites the existing ACL.
The network administrator will receive an error message.
**The existing ACL is modified to include the new command.
A second Managers ACL is created that contains only the new command.

4. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is trying to backup the IOS software on R1 to the TFTP server. He receives the error message that is shown in the exhibit, and cannot ping the TFTP server from R1. What is an action that can help to isolate this problem?

Use correct source file name in the command.
Verify that the TFTP server software is running.
Make sure that there is enough room on the TFTP server for the backup.
**Check that R1 has a route to the network where the TFTP server resides.

5. What can a network administrator do to recover from a lost router password?

use the copy tftp: flash: command
boot the router to bootROM mode and enter the b command to load the IOS manually
telnet from another router and issue the show running-config command to view the password
**boot the router to ROM monitor mode and configure the router to ignore the startup configuration when it initializes

6. Which combination of authentication and Layer 2 protocol should be used to establish a link between a Cisco and a non-Cisco router without sending authentication information in plain text?
CHAP and HDLC
**CHAP and PPP
PAP and HDLC
PAP and PPP

7. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement correctly describes how Router1 processes an FTP request that enters interface s0/0/0 and is destined for an FTP server at IP address 192.168.1.5?

The router matches the incoming packet to the statement that was created by the access-list 201 deny icmp 192.168.1.0 0.0.0.255 any command, continues comparing the packet to the remaining statements in ACL 201 to ensure that no subsequent statements allow FTP, and then the router drops the packet.
The router reaches the end of ACL 101 without matching a condition and drops the packet because there is no statement that was created by the access-list 101 permit ip any any command.
**The router matches the incoming packet to the statement that was created by the access-list 101 permit ip any 192.168.1.0 0.0.0.255 command and allows the packet into the router.
It matches the incoming packet to the statement that was created by the access-list 201 permit ip any any command and allows the packet into the router.

8. Which three statements accurately describe attributes of a security policy? (Choose three.)

**It creates a basis for legal action if necessary.
It should not be altered once it is implemented.
**It defines a process for managing security violations.
It focuses primarily on threats from outside of the organization.
**It defines acceptable and unacceptable use of network resources.
It provides step-by-step procedures to harden routers and other network devices.

9. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator creates a standard access control list on Router1 to prohibit traffic from the 172.16.1.0/24 network from reaching the 172.16.2.0/24 network while still permitting Internet access for all networks. On which router interface and in which direction should it be applied?

interface Fa0/0, inbound
interface Fa0/0, outbound
interface Fa0/1, inbound
**interface Fa0/1, outbound

10. Refer to the exhibit. Why are the routers unable to establish a PPP session?

**The usernames are misconfigured.
The IP addresses are on different subnets.
The clock rate is configured on the wrong end of the link.
The CHAP passwords must be different on the two routers.
Interface serial 0/0/0 on Router1 must connect to interface serial 0/0/1 on Router2.

11. What are two main components of data confidentiality? (Choose two.)

checksum
digital certificates
**encapsulation
**encryption
hashing

12. A technician is talking to a colleague at a rival company and comparing DSL transfer rates between the two companies. Both companies are in the same city, use the same service provider, and have the same rate/service plan. What is the explanation for why company 1 reports higher download speeds than company 2 reports?

Company 1 only uses microfilters at branch locations.
Company 1 has a lower volume of POTS traffic than company 2 has.
**Company 2 is located farther from the service provider than company 1 is.
Company 2 shares the connection to the DSLAM with more clients than company 1 shares with.

13. What is the result when the command permit tcp 192.168.4.0 0.0.3.255 any eq 23 is entered in a named access control list and applied on the inbound interface of a router?

All traffic from 192.168.4.0/24 larger than 23 bytes is permitted.
FTP traffic from the 192.168.4.0/24 network is permitted.
TCP traffic destined to 192.168.4.0/24 network is permitted.
**Telnet traffic originating from 192.168.4.0/22 is permitted out.

14. What are two major characteristics of a worm? (Choose two.)

**exploits known vulnerabilities
attaches itself to another program
executed by a predefined time or event
masquerades as an accepted program
**copies itself to the host and selects new targets

15. While configuring a Frame Relay connection, when should a static Frame Relay map be used?

the remote router is a non-Cisco router
the local router is configured with subinterfaces
**broadcast traffic and multicast traffic over the PVC must be controlled
globally significant rather than locally significant DLCIs are being used

16. A system administrator must provide Internet connectivity for ten hosts in a small remote office. The ISP has assigned two public IP addresses to this remote office. How can the system administrator configure the router to provide Internet access to all ten users at the same time?

Configure static NAT.
Configure dynamic NAT.
Configure static NAT with overload.
**Configure dynamic NAT with overload.

17. Refer to the exhibit. Which DHCP requests will R1 answer?

all DHCP requests that R1 receives
requests that are broadcast to 10.0.1.255
DNS requests with a destination of 10.0.1.3
**requests that are received on the FastEthernet 0/0 interface
requests that come from any networks that are not listed as excluded

18. What are the symptoms when the s0/0/0 interface on a router is attached to an operational CSU/DSU that is generating a clock signal, but the far end router on the point-to-point link has not been activated?

show controllers indicates cable type DCE V.35. show interfaces s0/0/0 indicates serial down, line protocol down.
show controllers indicates cable type DCE V.35. show interfaces s0/0/0 indicates serial up, line protocol down.
**show controllers indicates cable type DTE V.35. show interfaces s0/0/0 indicates serial up, line protocol down.
show controllers indicates cable type DTE V.35. show interfaces s0/0/0 indicates serial down, line protocol down.

19. A technician has been asked to run Cisco SDM one-step lockdown on the router of a customer. What will be the result of this process?

Traffic is only forwarded from SDM-trusted Cisco routers.
Security testing is performed and the results are saved as a text file stored in NVRAM.
**The router is tested for potential security problems and any necessary changes are made.
All traffic entering the router is quarantined and checked for viruses before being forwarded.

20. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has issued the commands that are shown on Router1 and Router2. A later review of the routing tables reveals that neither router is learning the LAN network of the neighbor router. What is most likely the problem with the RIPng configuration?

The serial interfaces are in different subnets.
**The RIPng process is not enabled on interfaces.
The RIPng processes do not match between Router1 and Router2.
The RIPng network command is missing from the IPv6 RIP configuration.

21. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true about the Frame Relay connection?

The Frame Relay connection is in the process of negotiation.
**A congestion control mechanism is enabled on the Frame Relay connection.
The “ACTIVE” status of the Frame Relay connection indicates that the network is experiencing congestion.
Only control FECN and BECN bits are sent over the Frame Relay connection. No data traffic traverses the link.

22. When configuring a Frame Relay connection, what is the purpose of Inverse ARP?

to assign a DLCI to a remote peer
to disable peer requests from determining local Layer 3 addresses
to negotiate LMI encapsulations between local and remote Frame Relay peers
**to create a mapping of DLCI to Layer 3 addresses that belong to remote peers

23. When NAT is in use, what is used to determine the addresses that can be translated on a Cisco router?

**access control list
routing protocol
inbound interface
ARP cache

24. An administrator is configuring a dual stack router with IPv6 and IPv4 using RIPng. The administrator receives an error message when trying to enter the IPv4 routes into RIPng. What is the cause of the problem?

When IPv4 and IPv6 are configured on the same interface, all IPv4 addresses are over-written in favor of the newer technology.
Incorrect IPv4 addresses are entered on the router interfaces.
RIPng is incompatible with dual-stack technology.
**IPv4 is incompatible with RIPng.

25. Refer to the exhibit. Router1 is not able to communicate with its peer that is connected to this interface. Based on the output as shown, what is the most likely cause?

interface reset
**unplugged cable
improper LMI type
PPP negotiation failure

26. Which two functions are provided by the Local Management Interface (LMI) that is used in Frame Relay networks? (Choose two.)
**simple flow control
error notification
congestion notification
mapping of DLCIs to network addresses
**exchange of information about the status of virtual circuits

27. Refer to the exhibit. A technician issues the show interface s0/0/0 command on R1 while troubleshooting a network problem. What two conclusions can be determined by from the output shown? (Choose two.)

**The bandwidth has been set to the value of a T1 line.
This interface should be configured for PPP encapsulation.
**There is no failure indicated in an OSI Layer 1 or Layer 2.
The physical connection between the two routers has failed.
The IP address of S0/0/0 is invalid, given the subnet mask being used.

28. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true about the CSU/DSU device?

It connects asynchronous devices to a LAN or WAN through network and terminal emulation software.
It uses a multiport internetworking device to switch traffic such as Frame Relay, ATM, or X.25 over the WAN.
**It provides termination for the digital signal and ensures connection integrity through error correction and line monitoring.
It converts the digital signals produced by a computer into voice frequencies that can be transmitted over the analog lines of the public telephone network.

29. Where does a service provider assume responsibility from a customer for a WAN connection?

local loop
DTE cable on router
**demarcation point
demilitarized zone

30. What are two LCP options that can be configured for PPP? (Choose two.)

EAP
**CHAP
IPCP
CDPCP
**stacker

31. Refer to the exhibit. What is placed in the address field in the header of a frame that will travel from the DC router to the Orlando router?

DLCI 123
**DLCI 321
10.10.10.25
10.10.10.26
MAC address of the Orlando router

32. Which two statements are true about creating and applying access lists? (Choose two.)

**There is an implicit deny at the end of all access lists.
**One access list per port, per protocol, per direction is permitted.
Access list entries should filter in the order from general to specific.
The term "inbound" refers to traffic that enters the network from the router interface where the ACL is applied.
Standard ACLs should be applied closest to the source while extended ACLs should be applied closest to the destination.

33. Which statement is true about wildcard masks?

Inverting the subnet mask will always create the wildcard mask.
The wildcard mask performs the same function as a subnet mask.
A network or subnet bit is identified by a "1" in the wildcard mask.
**IP address bits that must be checked are identified by a "0" in the wildcard mask.

34. Refer to the exhibit. A host connected to Fa0/0 is unable to acquire an IP address from this DHCP server. The output of the debug ip dhcp server command shows "DHCPD: there is no address pool for 192.168.1.1". What is the problem?

The 192.168.1.1 address has not been excluded from the DHCP pool.
**The pool of addresses for the 192Network pool is incorrect.
The default router for the 192Network pool is incorrect.
The 192.168.1.1 address is already configured on Fa0/0.

35.Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is tasked with completing the Frame Relay topology that interconnects two remote sites. How should the point-to-point subinterfaces be configured on HQ to complete the topology?

frame-relay interface-dlci 103 on Serial 0/0/0.1
frame-relay interface-dlci 203 on Serial 0/0/0.2
**frame-relay interface-dlci 301 on Serial 0/0/0.1
frame-relay interface-dlci 302 on Serial 0/0/0.2
frame-relay map ip 192.168.1.1 103 broadcast on Serial 0/0/0.1
frame-relay map ip 192.168.2.2 203 broadcast on Serial 0/0/0.2
frame-relay map ip 192.168.1.1 301 broadcast on Serial 0/0/0.1
frame-relay map ip 192.168.2.2 302 broadcast on Serial 0/0/0.2

36. What are two effective measures for securing routers? (Choose two.)

Protect all active router interfaces by configuring them as passive interfaces.
Configure remote administration through VTY lines for Telnet access.
**Use quotes or phrases to create pass phrases.
**Disable the HTTP server service.
Enable SNMP traps.

37. A network administrator is instructing a technician on best practices for applying ACLs. Which suggestion should the administrator provide?

Named ACLs are less efficient than numbered ACLs.
Standard ACLs should be applied closest to the core layer.
ACLs applied to outbound interfaces are the most efficient.
**Extended ACLs should be applied closest to the source that is specified by the ACL.

38. Refer to the exhibit. RIPv2 has been configured on all routers in the network. Routers R1 and R3 do not receive RIP routing updates. On the basis of the provided configuration, what should be enabled on router R2 to remedy the problem?

proxy ARP
CDP updates
SNMP services
**RIP authentication

39. Refer to the exhibit. Partial results of the show access-lists and show ip interface FastEthernet 0/1 commands for router Router1 are shown. There are no other ACLs in effect. Host A is unable to telnet to host B. Which action will correct the problem but still restrict other traffic between the two networks?

Apply the ACL in the inbound direction.
Apply the ACL on the FastEthernet 0/0 interface.
**Reverse the order of the TCP protocol statements in the ACL.
Modify the second entry in the list to permit tcp host 172.16.10.10 any eq telnet .

40. What will be the result of adding the command ip dhcp excluded-address 192.168.24.1 192.168.24.5 to the configuration of a local router that has been configured as a DHCP server?

Traffic that is destined for 192.168.24.1 and 192.168.24.5 will be dropped by the router.
Traffic will not be routed from clients with addresses between 192.168.24.1 and 192.168.24.5.
**The DHCP server will not issue the addresses ranging from 192.168.24.1 to 192.168.24.5.
The router will ignore all traffic that comes from the DHCP servers with addresses 192.168.24.1 and 192.168.24.5.

41. Refer to the exhibit. What can be concluded from the exhibited output of the debug ip nat command?

The 10.10.10.75 host is exchanging packets with the 192.168.0.10 host.
The native 10.1.200.254 address is being translated to 192.168.0.10.
**The 192.168.0.0/24 network is the inside network.
Port address translation is in effect.

42. Refer to the exhibit. Company ABC expanded its business and recently opened a new branch office in another country. IPv6 addresses have been used for the company network. The data servers Server1 and Server2 run applications which require end-to-end functionality, with unmodified packets that are forwarded from the source to the destination. The edge routers R1 and R2 support dual stack configuration. What solution should be deployed at the edge of the company network in order to successfully interconnect both offices?

a new WAN service supporting only IPv6
NAT overload to map inside IPv6 addresses to outside IPv4 address
**a manually configured IPv6 tunnel between the edge routers R1 and R2
static NAT to map inside IPv6 addresses of the servers to an outside IPv4 address and dynamic NAT for the rest of the inside IPv6 addresses

43. A network administrator has changed the VLAN configurations on his network switches over the past weekend. How can the administrator determine if the additions and changes improved performance and availability on the company intranet?

**Conduct a performance test and compare with the baseline that was established previously.
Interview departmental secretaries and determine if they think load time for web pages has improved.
Determine performance on the intranet by monitoring load times of company web pages from remote sites.
Compare the hit counts on the company web server for the current week to the values that were recorded in previous weeks.

44. Refer to the exhibit. From the output of the show interfaces and ping commands, at which layer of the OSI model is a fault indicated?

application
transport
**network
data link
physical

45. While troubleshooting a problem with an e-mail server, an administrator observes that the switch port used by the server shows "up, line protocol up". The administrator cannot ping the server. At which layer of the OSI model is the problem most likely to be found?

application layer
**network layer
data link layer
physical layer

46. Which variable is permitted or denied by a standard access control list?

protocol type
**source IP address
source MAC address
destination IP address
destination MAC address

47. A technician is editing and reapplying ACL 115 to a router, what is the result of adding the command access-list 115 permit tcp any 172.16.0.0 0.0.255.255 established to the ACL when it is reapplied to the router?

All traffic that comes from 172.16.0.0/16 will be allowed.
All TCP traffic that is destined for 172.16.0.0/16 is permitted.
Any SYN packets that are sent to 172.16.0.0/16 will be permitted.
**Responses to traffic that originates from the 172.16.0.0/16 network are allowed.

48. Because of a remote-procedure call failure, a user is unable to access an NFS server. At what layer of the TCP/IP model does this problem occur?

network layer
data link layer
physical layer
**application layer

49. Refer to the exhibit. Communication between two peers has failed. Based on the output that is shown, what is the most likely cause?

interface reset
unplugged cable
improper LMI type
**PPP negotiation failure

50. Which encapsulation protocol when deployed on a Cisco router over a serial interface is only compatible with another Cisco router?

PPP
SLIP
**HDLC
Frame Relay

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CCNA 4 - Modul 9

1. Upon completion of a proposal, a network design team must sell their ideas to two key stakeholders. Who are these two stakeholders? (Choose two.)

** Customers
licensing boards
** cabling contractors
internal management
project implementation team

2. NetworkingCompany completes the installation of a network upgrade for a retail customer. All of the onsite tests complete successfully and the customer IT staff approves the results of the tests. The manager of the retail store contacts NetworkingCompany to inform the company that the store will not pay for the upgrade until a recently purchased software package is installed and tested on the network. Which two items that are contained in the proposal can the account manager refer to when discussing this issue with the store manager? (Choose two.)

** the project scope
the bill-of-material
** the project timeline
the terms and conditions
the business goals of the customer
the evaluation of the current network

3. Which proposal section describes the intended routing protocol, security mechanisms, and addressing for the planned network?

** logical design
physical design
executive summary
implementation plan
network requirements

4. In order to finalize a project proposal, an account manager of a networking company creates the terms and conditions section. What are two clauses that should be included in this section? (Choose two.)

** cost summary
installation steps
** change order procedures
problem resolution process
maintenance contract quotation

5. A company informs the account manager that the installation of a new edge router at the customer remote branch location cannot be done at the scheduled time because of a large order that the branch office needs to complete. As a result, the end date of the project must be adjusted to accommodate the additional time. What is the action should the account manager take?

Cancel the order for the new edge router.
Work with designer to redesign the branch network.
Instruct the technician to complete the install of the router at on the date in the contract.
** Adjust the timeline documentation to show the company how the delay will affect the project completion date.

6. Which statement describes a phased installation into an existing network?

A phased installation generally takes less time and expense than a green-field installation.
A phased installation is not suitable for large, multi-site network installations or upgrades.
** A phased installation requires detailed planning in order to avoid disruption of user services.
A phased installation involves building an entire replacement network and migrating users over to it.

7. The NetworkingCompany team is tasked to prepare an implementation schedule for a customer. It is determined that the new firewalls and wireless controllers that are specified in the design cannot be delivered and installed within the agreed upon time frame. The NetworkingCompany informs the customer of the problem. What two options can the NetworkingCompany team take to ensure the success of the project? (Choose two.)

** plan to add additional staff and resources to shorten the installation time after the new equipment is delivered
eliminate redundancy in the design to reduce the amount of equipment that is needed
** renegotiate a new time frame with the customer to accommodate the delay
delay the installation of the security devices and controllers until a later time
redesign the network to use only readily available equipment and software

8. A network installation team is assigned to replace all core switches in an existing data center. No other upgrades are planned. Which kind of installation is this?

a new installation
a fork-lift installation
** a phased installation
a green field installation

9. What two items are typically included in the executive summary of a proposal? (Choose two.)

** project scope summary
high-level implementation plan
quotes for all needed equipment
technical requirements for the design
** emphasis on the benefits that meet the goals of the customer
10. Included in a Bill of Materials (BOM) for a SOHO wired implementation is a Cisco 2811 router, Catalyst 2560 switch, four PCs, three laptops, and a networked printer. Wireless LAN capability will be implemented on this network. Which two equipment types must be added to the BOM to implement this request? (Choose two.)

DNS server
** LAN switch
wireless NICs
DHCP server
** wireless access points

11. An upgraded version of the Cisco IOS has been purchased. However, the CD arrived damaged. How will this loss be covered?

a hardware warranty
a software warranty
** the Cisco SMARTnet Service
an additional service contract

12. The operation of a new branch location network is delayed because a VPN cannot be configured and established between the branch location and the main office. It is determined that the router at the main office does not have enough memory and does not have the correct Cisco IOS version image to support the VPN features. To prevent this delay, this problem should have been identified and corrected during which part of the design project?

the preparation of the business case
the prioritizing of the technical goals
** the characterization of the existing network
the implementation of the approved design

13. AAA Financial Services Company is performing implementation planning for a core switch upgrade. The company has 200 financial software programmers that work billable hours during the week. They have critical, scheduled money transfer transmissions that occur at hourly intervals every night. There are two, two-hour long IT maintenance windows scheduled for software upgrades, one on Saturday and one on Sunday. The bank advertises online banking as available 24 hours on business days and 21 hours on the weekends. However, a network upgrade that is necessary to replace some switches is expected to take four hours. Because of rack constraints, this time includes three hours to remove the old switches before the new switches can be installed and one hour to test the logical configuration. How should the implementation scheduling be handled?

Defer the software upgrades. Use the Saturday window to perform the hardware installation. Use the Sunday window to perform the logical testing.
Coordinate and publish a separate four-hour downtime during Friday to perform the complete switch installation and testing process. Use the Saturday and Sunday windows to correct any outage problems after the Friday window.
Coordinate and publish two, four-hour downtimes incorporating the published Saturday and Sunday windows. Defer any software upgrades until the new network is proven to be working correctly with the old software. Use the Sunday window as a fallback scheduling period if there are problems necessitating backing out of the Saturday window.
** Coordinate and publish an eight-hour downtime incorporating the Saturday window. This will allow four hours for installation and logical testing, one hour for troubleshooting and decision, and three hours to roll back to the previous configuration if the new switching cannot pass the logical testing. Defer any software upgrades until the new network is proven to be working correctly with the old software. *

14. A customer has just taken delivery of a Cisco 2811 router and Catalyst 3560 switch. Included with the purchase is the SMARTnet Service. Which two resources are included with SMARTnet Service? (Choose two.)

signature file updates
** technical support from TAC
maintenance releases for OS
** software application major releases
software application maintenance and minor releases

15. What service is provided Cisco standard warranty?

software application maintenance
** replacement of defected hardware
next business day delivery of replacement parts
access to the Cisco Technical Assistance Center (TAC) 24 hours a day, 7 days a week

16. What are two important guidelines when creating a slide presentation for a meeting with a customer? (Choose two.)

Use all capital letters on words and phrases when possible for added emphasis.
Provide varied background graphics to enhance viewer interest.
** Use contrasting colors for background and text to aid visibility.
Change fonts frequently to denote differences in subject matter.
** Use bulleted text to lead the discussion.*

17. Which two statements describe factors that influence the layout of a proposal? (Choose two.)

Proposal layouts are required to use sans serif typefaces.
** A specific proposal layout is followed when one is specified in the RFP.
** A designer chooses the layout if a written RFP does not specify an outline.
The software that is used to create the proposal dictates the proposal layouts.
Proposal layouts are required to use a format that is designed by the network engineer.

18. Which occurrence would indicate a failure of the design phase?

The incorrect model switches were ordered.
There is no customer signoff for task completion.
New requirements are identified after implementation begins.
** The new network capacity is inadequate to support required traffic.

19. Which two items will a systems engineer include in an implementation plan? (Choose two.)

references to design documents
** the business goals of the customer
** diagrams of the existing traffic flows
the steps to install and test the network
cost of each network device and component

20. A Cisco 1841 router has been purchased without an agreement for SMARTnet Service. What two items are guaranteed under the standard warranty? (Choose two.)

access to TAC
** replacement of defective physical media
advanced replacement of hardware parts
access to a renewable standard warranty contract
** under normal use, replacement of defective hardware

Read more »

CCNA 4 - Modul 8

1. Excessive broadcasts are generally a symptom of a problem at which layer?

** data link

2. Refer to the exhibit. Users at Branch B are reporting trouble accessing a corporate website running on a server that is located at HQ. HQ and Branch A users can access the website. R3 is able to ping 10.10.10.1 successfully but not 10.10.10.2. The users at Branch B can access servers at Branch A. Which two statements are true aboutthe troubleshooting efforts? (Choose two.)

** Frame Relay at R3 and R2 should be tested to narrow the scope of the problem.
** An ACL entry error could cause the failure at Layer 4 in either R3 or R2.

3. What is one example of a physical layer problem?

** incorrect clock rate

4. Which two components should be taken into consideration when establishing a network baseline? (Choose two.)

** information about the network design
** expected performance under normal operating conditions

5. Refer to the exhibit. Which two steps should be taken during the process of creating network documentation? (Choose two.)

** Record the information about the devices discovered in the entire network, including the remote locations.
** Transfer any information about the devices from the network configuration table that corresponds to a component of the topology diagram.

6. A technician has been asked to troubleshoot an existing switched network but is unable to locate documentation for the VLAN configuration. Which troubleshooting tool allows the technician to map and discover VLAN and port assignments?

** network analyzer

7. What combination of IP address and wildcard mask should be used to specify only the last 8 addresses in the subnet 192.168.3.32/28?

** 192.168.3.40 0.0.0.7

8. Information about which OSI layers of connected Cisco devices can be verified with the show cdp neighbors command?

** Layer 1, Layer 2, and Layer 3

9. A technician has been asked to make several changes to the configuration and topology of a network and then determine the outcome of the changes. What tool can be used to determine the overall effect caused by the changes?

** baselining tool

10. Which two pieces of information are typically found on a logical network diagram? (Choose two.)

** interface identifiers
** DLCI for virtual circuits

11. Refer to the exhibit. Which three pieces of information can be determined by analyzing the output shown? (Choose three.)

** A carrier detect signal is present.
** Keepalives are being received successfully.
** The LCP negotiation phase is complete.

12. Clients across the company are reporting poor performance across all corporate applications running in the data center. Internet access and applications running across the corporate WAN are performing normally. The network administrator observes a continual broadcast of random meaningless traffic (jabber) on the application server LAN in the data center on a protocol analyzer. How should the administrator start troubleshooting?

** The jabber in the data center indicates a local physical layer problem. Use the protocol analyzer to determine the source of the jabber, and then check for a recent NIC driver update or bad cabling.

13. When gathering symptoms for troubleshooting a network problem, which step could result in getting an external administrator involved in the process?

** determining ownership

14. A network administrator has received complaints that users on a local LAN can retrieve e-mail from a remote e-mail server but are unable to open web pages on the same server. Services at which two layers of the OSI model should be investigated during the troubleshooting process? (Choose two.)

** transport layer
** application layer

15. Users are complaining of very long wait times to access resources on the network. The show interface command reveals collision counts far above the network baseline. At which OSI layer should the administrator begin troubleshooting?

** physical

16. Which troubleshooting approach is suggested for dealing with a complex problem that is suspected of being caused by faulty network cabling?

** bottom up

17. Which two statements are true concerning logical networking models? (Choose two.)

** The top layer of the TCP/IP model combines the functions of the top three OSI layers.
** The TCP/IP network access layer corresponds to the OSI physical and data link layers.

18. Which three approaches should be used when attempting to gather data from users for troubleshooting? (Choose three.)

** Obtain information by asking simple pertinent questions.
** Determine if the problem is related to time or a specific event.
** Determine if the user can re-create the problem or events leading to the problem.

19. Refer to the exhibit. Users on the Internal LAN are unable to connect to the www server. The network administrator pings the server and verifies that NAT is functioning correctly. Which OSI layer should the administrator begin to troubleshoot next?

** application

20. Encapsulation errors from mismatched WAN protocols on a serial link between two routers indicate a problem at which OSI layer?

** data link

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CCNA 4 - Modul 7

1. Refer to the exhibit. IPv6 address 2006:1::1/64 eui-64 has been configured on the router FastEthernet0/0 interface. Which statement accurately describes the EUI-64 identifier configuration?

** The configuration will derive the interface portion of the IPv6 address from the MAC address of the interface.

2. Refer to the exhibit. Which address or addresses represent the inside global address?

** 209.165.20.25

3. Your organization is issued the IPv6 prefix of 2001:0000:130F::/48 by your service provider. With this prefix, how many bits are available for your organization to create subnetworks?

** 16

4. What are two benefits of NAT? (Choose two.)

** It saves public IP addresses.
** It adds a degree of privacy and security to a network.

5. What is true regarding the differences between NAT and PAT?

** PAT uses unique source port numbers to distinguish between translations.
6. A network administrator wants to connect two IPv6 islands. The easiest way is through a public network that uses only IPv4 equipment. What simple solution solves the problem?

** Use tunneling to encapsulate the IPv6 traffic in the IPv4 protocol.

7. Refer to the exhibit. Which two addresses could be assigned to traffic leaving S0 as a result of the statement ip nat pool Tampa 179.9.8.96 179.9.8.111 netmask 255.255.255.240? (Choose two.)

** 179.9.8.98
** 179.9.8.101

8. Refer to the exhibit. The FTP server has an RFC 1918 private address. Users on the Internet need to connect to the FTP server on the Fa0/0 LAN of R1. Which three configurations must be completed on R1? (Choose three.)

** open port 20
** open port 21
** NAT with port forwarding

9. After activating IPv6 routing on a Cisco router and programming IPv6 addresses on multiple interfaces, what is the remaining step to activate RIPng?

** Enter the interface programming mode for each IPv6 interface and enable IPng RIP.

10. Refer to the exhibit. How many IPv6 broadcast domains exist in this topology?

0

11. Refer to the exhibit. Traffic exiting R1 is failing translation. What part of the configuration is most likely incorrect?

** access-list statement

12. Refer to the exhibit. According to the output, how many addresses have been successfully assigned by this DHCP server?

** 8

13. Refer to the exhibit. What is the purpose of the command marked with an arrow shown in the partial configuration output of a Cisco broadband router?

** defines which addresses can be translated

14. A technician has been told by a supervisor to always clear any dynamic translations before attempting to troubleshoot a failed NAT connection. Why has the supervisor issued these instructions?

** Because entries can be cached for long periods of time, the supervisor wants to prevent decisions being made based on old data.

15. Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements about the configuration are true? (Choose two.)

** Traffic from the 10.1.1.0 network will be translated.
** Permitted traffic gets translated to a single inside global IP address.

16. Refer to the exhibit. R1 is performing NAT for the 10.1.1.0/24 network, and R2 is performing NAT for the 192.168.1.2/24 network. What would be valid destination IP address for HostA to put in its IP header when communicating with the web server?

** 172.30.20.2

17. What type of NAT should a network administrator use to ensure that a web server on the inside network is always available to the outside network?

** static NAT

18. How many bits of an IPv6 address are used to identify the interface ID?

** 64

19. Refer to the exhibit. A technician used SDM to enter the NAT configuration for a Cisco router. Which statement correctly describes the result of the configuration?

** A user on the outside network sees a request addressed from 192.168.1.3 using port 80.

20. Refer to the exhibit. A network technician determines DHCP clients are not working properly. The clients are receiving IP configuration information from a DHCP server configured on the router but cannot access the Internet. From the output in the graphic, what is the most likely problem?

** The pool does not have a default router defined for the clients.

21. Refer to the exhibit. On the basis of the configuration shown, how should the pool of the excluded addresses be assigned to key hosts on the network, such as router interfaces, printers, and servers?

** The addresses are statically assigned by the network administrator.

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CCNA 4 - Modul 6

1. Which two Layer 1 requirements are outlined in the Data-over-Cable Service Interface Specification (DOCSIS)? (Choose two.)

** channel widths
** modulation techniques

2. Which is an example of symmetric-key encryption?

** pre-shared key

3. Which two statements are valid solutions for a cable ISP to reduce congestion for users? (Choose two.)

** allocate an additional channel
** subdivide the network to reduce users on each segment

4. While monitoring traffic on a cable network, a technician notes that data is being transmitted at 38 MHz. Which statement describes the situation observed by the technician?

** Data is being transmitted from the subscriber to the headend.

5. After conducting research to learn about common remote connection options for teleworkers, a network administrator has decided to implement remote access over broadband to establish VPN connections over the public Internet. What is the result of this solution?

** The connection has increased security and reliable connectivity. Users need a remote VPN router or VPN client software.
6. Data confidentiality through a VPN is achieved through which two methods? (Choose two.)

** encryption
** encapsulation

7. Data confidentiality through a VPN can be enhanced through the use of which three encryption protocols? (Choose three.)
** AES
** DES
** RSA

8. What two protocols provide data authentication and integrity for IPsec? (Choose two.)
** AH
** ESP

9. A technician has been asked to configure a broadband connection for a teleworker. The technician has been instructed that all uploads and downloads for the connection must use existing phone lines. Which broadband technology should be used?

** DSL

10. What are the three main functions of a secure VPN? (Choose three.)

** authentication
** data confidentiality
** data integrity

11. A company is using WiMAX to provide access for teleworkers. What home equipment must the company provide at the teleworker's site?

** a WiMAX receiver

12. Which two methods could an administrator use to authenticate users on a remote access VPN? (Choose two.)
** digital certificates
** smart cards

13. Which two statements about DSL are true? (Choose two.)

** local loop can be up to 3.5 miles (5.5km)
** user connections are aggregated at a DSLAM located at the CO

14. Which two features can be associated with the Worldwide Interoperability for Microwave Access (WiMAX) telecommunication technology? (Choose two.)

** covers areas as large as 7,500 square kilometers
** connects directly to the Internet through high-bandwidth connections

15. Refer to the exhibit. All users have a legitimate purpose and the necessary persissions to access the Corporate network. Based on the topology shown, which locations are able to establish VPN connectivity with the Corporate network?

** All locations can support VPN connectivity.

16. Which statement describes cable?

** Delivering services over a cable network requires downstream frequencies in the 50 to 860 MHz range, and upstream frequencies in the 5 to 42 MHz range.

17. Which two protocols can be used to encapsulate traffic that is traversing a VPN tunnel? (Choose two.)

** IPsec
** PPTP

18. Refer to the exhibit. A teleworker is connected over the Internet to the HQ Office. What type of secure connection can be established between the teleworker and the HQ Office?

** a remote-access VPN

19. Refer to the exhibit. A VPN tunnel has been established between the HQ Office and the Branch Office over the public Internet. Which three mechanisms are required by the devices on each end of the VPN tunnel to protect the data from being intercepted and modified? (Choose three.)

** The two parties must establish a secret key used by encryption and hash algorithms.
** The two parties must agree on the encryption algorithm to be used over the VPN tunnel.
** The devices must be authenticated before the communication path is considered secure.

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CCNA 4 - Modul 5

1. Refer to the exhibit. What will be the effect of the configuration that is shown?
** Users attempting to access hosts in the 192.168.30.0/24 network will be required to telnet to R3.

2. Which three parameters can ACLs use to filter traffic? (Choose three.)

** protocol suite
** source address
** destination address

3. Refer to the exhibit. How does this access list process a packet with the source address 10.1.1.1 and a destination of 192.168.10.13?

** It is dropped because it does not match any of the items in the ACL.

4 .Which two statements are correct about extended ACLs? (Choose two)

** Extended ACLs evaluate the source and destination addresses.
** Port numbers can be used to add greater definition to an ACL.
5. Where should a standard access control list be placed?

** close to the destination

6. Which three statements describe ACL processing of packets? (Choose three.)

** An implicit deny any rejects any packet that does not match any ACL statement.
** A packet can either be rejected or forwarded as directed by the statement that is matched.
Each statement is checked only until a match is detected or until the end of the ACL statement list.

7. Refer to the exhibit. How will Router1 treat traffic matching the time-range requirement of EVERYOTHERDAY?

** Telnet traffic entering fa0/0 from 10.1.1.254/24 destined to the 172.16.1.0/24 network is permitted.

8. Which two statements are true regarding the following extended ACL? (Choose two.)
access-list 101 deny tcp 172.16.3.0 0.0.0.255 any eq 20
access-list 101 deny tcp 172.16.3.0 0.0.0.255 any eq 21
access-list 101 permit ip any any

** FTP traffic originating from network 172.16.3.0/24 is denied.
** Web traffic originating from 172.16.3.0 is permitted.

9. Which two statements are true regarding the significance of the access control list wildcard mask 0.0.0.7? (Choose two.)

** The first 29 bits of a given IP address will be ignored.
** The last 3 bits of a given IP address will be checked.

10. Refer to the exhibit. When creating an extended ACL to deny traffic from the 192.168.30.0 network destined for the Web server 209.165.201.30, where is the best location for applying the ACL?

** R3 Fa0/0 inbound

11. How do Cisco standard ACLs filter traffic?

** by source IP address

12. Which three items must be configured before a dynamic ACL can become active on a router? (Choose three.)

** extended ACL
** authentication
** Telnet connectivity

13. A network administrator needs to allow traffic through the firewall router for sessions that originate from within the company network, but the administrator must block traffic for sessions that originate outside the network of the company. What type of ACL is most appropriate?

** reflexive

14. Which statement about standard ACLs is true?

** They should be placed as close to the destination as possible.

15. Which benefit does an extended ACL offer over a standard ACL?

** In addition to the source address, an extended ACL can also filter on destination address, destination port, and source port.

16. The following commands were entered on a router:

Router(config)# access-list 2 deny 172.16.5.24
Router(config)# access-list 2 permit any

The ACL is correctly applied to an interface. What can be concluded about this set of commands?

** All nodes on the 172.16.0.0 network will be denied access to other networks.

17. Refer to the exhibit. The administrator wishes to block web traffic from 192.168.1.50 from reaching the default port of the web service on 192.168.3.30. To do this, the access control list name is applied inbound on the router R1 LAN interface. After testing the list, the administrator has noted that the web traffic remains successful. Why is web traffic reaching the destination?

** The range of source addresses specified in line 10 does not include host 192.168.1.50.

18. Which feature will require the use of a named ACL rather than a numbered ACL?

** the ability to edit the ACL and add additional statements in the middle of the list without removing and re-creating the list

19. By default, how is IP traffic filtered in a Cisco router?

** permitted in and out of all interfaces

20. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator applied an ACL outbound on S0/0/0 on router R1. Immediately after the administrator did so, the users on network 172.22.30.0/24 started complaining that they have intermittent access to the resources available on the server on the 10.10.0.0/16 network. On the basis of the configuration that is provided, what is the possible reason for the problem?

** The ACL permits the IP packets for users on network 172.22.30.0/24 only during a specific time range.

21. Interface s0/0/0 already has an IP ACL applied inbound. What happens when the network administrator attempts to apply a second inbound IP ACL?

** The second ACL is applied to the interface, replacing the first.

22. A technician is creating an ACL and needs a way to indicate only the subnet 172.16.16.0/21. Which combination of network address and wildcard mask will accomplish the desired task?

** 172.16.16.0 0.0.7.255

23. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true about ACL 110 if ACL 110 is applied in the inbound direction on S0/0/0 of R1?

** It will permit any TCP traffic that originated from network 172.22.10.0/24 to return inbound on the S0/0/0 interface.

24. Refer to the exhibit. ACL 120 is configured inbound on the serial0/0/0 interface on router R1, but the hosts on network 172.11.10.0/24 are able to telnet to network 10.10.0.0/16. On the basis of the provided configuration, what should be done to remedy the problem?
** Apply the ACL outbound on the serial0/0/0 interface on router R1.

25. Which two statements are true regarding named ACLs? (Choose two.)

** Names can be used to help identify the function of the ACL.
** Certain complex ACLs, such as reflexive ACLs, must be defined with named ACLs.

Read more »

CCNA 4 - Modul 4

1. What is the best defense for protecting a network from phishing exploits?

** Schedule training for all users.

2. What are three characteristics of a good security policy? (Choose three.)

** It defines acceptable and unacceptable use of network resources.
** It communicates consensus and defines roles.
** It defines how to handle security incidents.

3. The Cisco IOS image naming convention allows identification of different versions and capabilities of the IOS. What information can be gained from the filename c2600-d-mz.121-4? (Choose two.)

** The software is version 12.1, 4th revision.
** The IOS is for the Cisco 2600 series hardware platform.

4. Refer to the exhibit. What is accomplished when both commands are configured on the router?

** The commands disable the services such as echo, discard, and chargen on the router to prevent security vulnerabilities.

5. Which two conditions should the network administrator verify before attempting to upgrade a Cisco IOS image using a TFTP server? (Choose two.)

** Verify connectivity between the router and TFTP server using the ping command.
** Verify that there is enough flash memory for the new Cisco IOS image using the show flash command.

6. Which two statements regarding preventing network attacks are true? (Choose two.)

** Physical security threat mitigation consists of controlling access to device console ports, labeling critical cable runs, installing UPS systems, and providing climate control.
** Changing default usernames and passwords and disabling or uninstalling unnecessary services are aspects of device hardening.

7. An IT director has begun a campaign to remind users to avoid opening e-mail messages from suspicious sources. Which type of attack is the IT director trying to protect users from?

** virus

8. Users are unable to access a company server. The system logs show that the server is operating slowly because it is receiving a high level of fake requests for service. Which type of attack is occurring?

** DoS

9. Refer to the exhibit. What is the purpose of the "ip ospf message-digest-key 1 md5 cisco" statement in the configuration?

** to specify a key that is used to authenticate routing updates

10. Which two statements define the security risk when DNS services are enabled on the network? (Choose two.)

** The basic DNS protocol does not provide authentication or integrity assurance.
** The router configuration does not provide an option to set up main and backup DNS servers.

11. Which two statements are true about network attacks? (Choose two.)

** A brute-force attack searches to try every possible password from a combination of characters.
** Devices in the DMZ should not be fully trusted by internal devices, and communication between the DMZ and internal devices should be authenticated to prevent attacks such as port redirection.

12. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is trying to configure a router to use SDM, but it is not functioning correctly. What could be the problem?

** The privilege level of the user is not configured correctly.

13. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator is trying to back up the Cisco IOS router software and receives the output shown. What are two possible reasons for this output? (Choose two.)

** The router cannot connect to the TFTP server.
** The TFTP server software has not been started.

14. Which two statements are true regarding network security? (Choose two.)

** Both experienced hackers who are capable of writing their own exploit code and inexperienced individuals who download exploits from the Internet pose a serious threat to network security.
** Protecting network devices from physical damage caused by water or electricity is a necessary part of the security policy.

15. The password recovery process begins in which operating mode and using what type of connection? (Choose two.)

** ROM monitor
** Direct connection through the console port

16. Which two objectives must a security policy accomplish? (Choose two.)

** Document the resources to be protected
** Identify the security objectives of the organization

17. Which statement is true about Cisco Security Device Manager (SDM)?

** SDM can be run from router memory or from a PC.

18. Which step is required to recover a lost enable password for a router?

** Set the configuration register to bypass the startup configuration.

19. Refer to the exhibit. Security Device Manager (SDM) is installed on router R1. What is the result of opening a web browser on PC1 and entering the URL https://192.168.10.1?

** The SDM page of R1 appears with a dialog box that requests a username and password.

20. Intrusion detection occurs at which stage of the Security Wheel?

** Monitoring

21. Refer to the exhibit. Security Device Manager (SDM) has been used to configure a required level of security on the router. What would be accomplished when the SDM applies the next step on the security problems that are identified on the router?

** SDM will reconfigure the services that are marked in the exhibit as “fix it” to apply the suggested security changes.

22. What are two benefits of using Cisco AutoSecure? (Choose two.)

** It gives the administrator detailed control over which services are enabled or disabled.
** It allows the administrator to configure security policies without having to understand all of the Cisco IOS software features.

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CCNA 4 - Modul 3

1. Which best describes the benefit of using Frame Relay as opposed to a leased line or ISDN service?

** Customers only pay for the local loop and the bandwidth they purchase from the network provider.

2. Which statement about Frame Relay subinterfaces is correct?

** Point-to-point subinterfaces act like leased lines and eliminate split-horizon routing issues.

3. What best describes the use of a data-link connection identifier (DLCI)?

** locally significant address used to identify a virtual circuit

4. What is created between two DTEs in a Frame Relay network?

** virtual circuit

5. Which two items allow the router to map data link layer addresses to network layer addresses in a Frame Relay network? (Choose two.)

** Inverse ARP
** LMI status messages

6. Refer to the exhibit. What can be known about the configuration of router R1 from the output?

** The command encapsulation frame-relay ietf has been used on the Serial 0/0/0 interface.

7. Refer to the exhibit. Which two outcomes occur from the configuration shown? (Choose two.)

** The router will use DLCI 22 to forward data to 10.1.1.1.
** Frames arriving on interface serial 0/0/0 of RT_1 will have a data link layer address of 22.

8. Refer to the exhibit. What effect does the point-to-point configuration on subinterface S0/0.110 have on the operation of the router?

** It eliminates split horizon issues without increasing the likelihood of routing loops.

9. Refer to the exhibit. You are a network administrator who has been tasked with completing the Frame Relay topology that interconnects two remote sites. Router HQ belongs to both the 172.16.1.0/24 and 172.16.2.0/24 subnets with IP addresses of 172.16.1.3 and 172.16.2.3 respectively. Traffic between R1 and R2 must travel through HQ first. How should the serial interface on HQ be configured to complete the topology?

** two point-to-point subinterfaces

10. Refer to the exhibit. What can be determined about the configuration of router R1 from the exhibited output?

** The LMI type for the Serial 0/0/0 interface has been left to its default configuration.

11. Refer to the exhibit. What can be determined about the Frame Relay switch from the output shown?

** It is experiencing congestion.

12. Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true given the output shown? (Choose two.)

** The local DLCI number is 401.
** Inverse ARP is being used on this connection.

13. Refer to the exhibit. A ping is sent to address 192.168.50.10 from the Peanut router. Which DLCI will be used to send the ping?

** 110

14. Refer to the exhibit. Router R1 has been configured for Frame Relay connectivity to routers R2 and R3. Which set of configuration options for routers R2 and R3 would provide each router connectivity to R1?

** R2(config)# interface serial0/0/1.201 point-to-point
R2(config-if)# frame-relay interface-dlci 201
R3(config)# interface serial0/0/1.301 point-to-point
R3(config-if)# frame-relay interface-dlci 301

15. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement explains why the Frame Relay connection between R1 and R2 is failing?

** The frame-relay map commands are using incorrect DLCIs.

16. Refer to the exhibit. Router R2 is part of a Frame Relay network that uses OSPF for IP routing. After the commands that are shown are entered, R2 will not exchange OSPF information correctly. What is the likely cause?

** The frame-relay map command requires the broadcast keyword.

17. Refer to the exhibit. When troubleshooting a Frame Relay connection, an administrator entered the show interfaces s0/0 command and received the output shown in the exhibit. What are two probable reasons for this problem? (Choose two.)

** The router is not configured for the same Frame Relay PVC as the switch.
** The LMI type on the Frame Relay switch is NOT ANSI.

18. Refer to the exhibit. What can be determined from the output?

** Serial 0/0/0 has been configured with an DLCI of 201.

19. What consideration must be taken into account if RIP is used on Frame Relay multiaccess networks?

** To forward routing updates, address-to-DLCI mapping must be done via the use of the frame-relay map command coupled with the broadcast keyword.

20. Which three actions does a Frame Relay switch perform when it detects an excessive build-up of frames in its queue? (Choose three.)

** drops frames from the queue that have the DE bit set
** sets the FECN bit on all frames it receives on the congested link
** sets the BECN bit on all frames it places on the congested link

21. What two methods does Frame Relay technology use to process frames that contain errors? (Choose two.)

** Frame Relay services depend on the upper layer protocols to handle error recovery.
** The receiving device drops any frames that contain errors without notifying the sender.

22. Refer to the exhibit. Router R1 has been configured for Frame Relay connectivity to routers R2 and R3. What configuration option should be configured on the R2 and R3 serial interfaces in order for all routers to ping each other successfully?

** R2(config-if)# frame-relay map ip 10.1.1.1 201 broadcast
R2(config-if)# frame-relay map ip 10.1.1.3 201 broadcast
R3(config-if)# frame-relay map ip 10.1.1.1 301 broadcast
R3(config-if)# frame-relay map ip 10.1.1.2 301 broadcast

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